how to scam a stupid person out of money

[ssjgohan]

this is how you can get alot of money with stupid people

i'm about to prove you that 100 = 1

take a good look and be amazed

 

1 = 100

 

100 = 100 x 100

 

1 = 1 x 1

 

1 = 1

 

ok so first we got 1 = 100 (ill give the example in euros)

then we set those euros in cents to 1 euro = 100 cents and 100 euros = 10000 cents and 10000 = 100 x 100

 

100 cents is 1 euro so we got 1 euro = 1 x 1 euro

 

so 1 = 1

 

so i'm telling you that 1 euro = 100 euro

Time to get rich!

[Kendai]

You're using two different number quantities, euros and cents. Therefore they are not equal. Feel free to argue me

[Grum]

Hmmm, you have shown that if 1=100, then 1=1, and the proof seems to be correct. But then again, if you assume that 1=100, you can prove about anything

[Atreyu]

I think that's the point.

 

If you say what he said to someone, trying to scam them, if they're stupid, they'll fall for it, if not (like you), they won't.

[Mad_Raven]

pppffft i have a better

1=2 lets prove it!

lets take that a=1 and b=1

so a=b right?

uhhhh lemme remember

a x(a-B )=(a+B )x(a-B )

then we eliminate the (a-B ) because its on both sides of the equation

and....

a=a+b

or

1=1+1

a.k.a.

1=2!

so i win!

sweet,sweet victory! :smartass:

 

edit:had to make room between b and )

Edited October 12, 2005 by Mad_Raven

[ssjgohan]

you can get that on of 1 = 2 anywhere .. i remember seeing it SOMEWHERE on the internet do not ask me where...

[Mad_Raven]

you can get that on of 1 = 2 anywhere .. i remember seeing it SOMEWHERE on the internet do not ask me where...

208609[/snapback]

You're just jelous cause my theory beats yours.....

[Kendai]

a x(a-B )=(a+B )x(a-B )

How can you say that both sides of the equation are equal? I see no proof

 

If you substitute the numbers for a and B, which are both equal to one...

 

(1)x(1-1)=(1+1)x(1-1)

0=0

 

But if a and B were not alike, then the equation must be false.

Say a=2 and B=1.

 

(2)x(2-1)=(2+1)x(2-1)

2x=3x

2=3

 

Obviously 2 does not equal 3. Therefore the equation is false. You cannot use it as proof to say 2=1 unless you use the exact same values for both a and B. Now if you'd excuse me, I was done with math classes in my senior year of high school, and I'd like to forget math, thank you

[Mad_Raven]

Lets see...i DID say at the beggining of the equation that a=1 AND b=1

there is your proof

oh and

bwahahahahahaa i rulez

Edited October 12, 2005 by Mad_Raven

[Kendai]

[Josie]

Whats that again ????

 

1=100

etc etc

 

errrr

 

sorry im realy realy slow

[Quinticus]

 

I can make 1 euro into 100 euros!?!?!

 

SIGN ME UP!

[Mad_Raven]

 

 

I can make 1 euro into 100 euros!?!?!

 

SIGN ME UP! 

208995[/snapback]

Yeah!It's like having a license to print money!!!

(read "Good omens" by Terry Pratchet)

[vegard]

coool!!! ROFL!!! madraven is hilarious!!!